When a judge refers to "common sense, common-sense, popular parlance" or "common-sense", does this mean that the judge must be able to rely solely on common sense or common- sense?
California, United States of America
The following excerpt is from The People v. Cornett, A123957, No. SCR-504048 (Cal. App. 2010):
resort to inference or implication arising from common sense, popular parlance, or any other extrinsic factor. (See Keeler v. Superior Court, supra, 2 Cal.3d at pp. 631-632.)
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