Is there any case law that supports the argument that a plaintiff has a valid claim to be able to sue for damages?
MultiRegion, United States of America
The following excerpt is from Osborn v. American Ass'n of Retired Persons, 660 F.2d 740 (9th Cir. 1981):
Id. at 639, 101 S.Ct. at 2066 (emphasis in original) (quoting Piper v. Chris-Craft Inds., Inc., 430 U.S. 1, 37, 97 S.Ct. 926, 947, 51 L.Ed.2d 124 (1977)).
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