Does the definition of "secular activity" need to be changed so that it is not discriminatory or restrictive?

California, United States of America


The following excerpt is from Catholic Charities v. Superior Court, 10 Cal.Rptr.3d 283, 32 Cal.4th 527, 85 P.3d 67 (Cal. 2004):

Of course, the cited cases are distinguishable. The controversy here does not involve solicitation, or potential chilling effects, religious schools, administrative discretion, or ad hoc determinations. In reality, this case is worse. Here we are dealing with an intentional, purposeful intrusion into a religious organization's expression of its religious tenets and sense of mission. The government is not accidentally or incidentally interfering with religious practice; it is doing so willfully by making a judgment about what is or is not religious. This is precisely the sort of behavior that has been condemned in every other context. The conduct is hardly less offensive because it is codified. Definition may be just as pernicious as ongoing monitoring if its purpose is to suppress or burden religious conduct. (Espinosa v. Rusk, supra, 634 F.2d at p. 481 ["The conception of religion entertained by the City ... was that it had to be purely spiritual or evangelical. Thus, the charitable activity of the church having to do with the feeding of the hungry or the offer of clothing and shelter to the poor was deemed subject to regulation. This broad definition of secular is part of the problem"].)

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