Does a state court have more latitude than a federal court to reasonably determine that a defendant has not satisfied the standard of conduct required for a motion to be heard in a civil case?
MultiRegion, United States of America
The following excerpt is from Santoyo v. Seibel, No. 2:14-cv-0771 DB P (E.D. Cal. 2016):
standard is a general standard, a state court has even more latitude to reasonably determine that a defendant has not satisfied that standard." Knowles v. Mirzayance, 556 U.S. 111, 123 (2009).
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